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July 10, 2009



I'm sure the State Dept. never had any trouble listing someone born in Gaza before 1967 as being born in Egypt; or someone born in Ramallah as being born in Jordan (both regions being technically under foreign occupation at that time). So now if Israel replaces those occupiers, why doesn't the same rule apply?

(Never mind, I think we know why...)

Meanwhile, it would be nice to see if POTUS can come up with an acceptable birth certificate...

D. Davids

This is absolute lawlessness from a politicized court. The legal provision was proper and the State Department improperly is refusing to obey the law. Outrageous behavior from the court.

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